A 47-year-old man is newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes. His A1C is 7.8% and his individualized target is 7.0% or lower. He has no symptoms of hyperglycemia, no cardiovascular disease, heart failure or kidney disease, and his eGFR is 95 mL/min/1.73 m².
In addition to healthy behaviour interventions, which is the most appropriate initial pharmacotherapy?
- A.Metformin, titrated gradually
- B.Metformin plus sitagliptin as a combination tablet
- C.Basal insulin glargine at bedtime
- D.Gliclazide MR monotherapy
- E.No medication until A1C exceeds 8.5%
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Answer: A
His A1C is 0.8% above target, which is less than the 1.5% threshold for starting combination therapy at diagnosis. Metformin remains the recommended initial agent for most adults, and he has no cardiorenal disease that would prioritize another class.
Why the other options are wrong
- B:Initial combination therapy is reserved for A1C more than 1.5% above target.
- C:Insulin first is reserved for metabolic decompensation or severe symptomatic hyperglycemia.
- D:Sulfonylureas are not the preferred first agent; they cause hypoglycemia and weight gain.
- E:Diabetes Canada does not use an A1C of 8.5% as a trigger; treatment aims to reach target within 3 to 6 months.
Reference: Diabetes Canada, Pharmacologic Glycemic Management of Type 2 Diabetes in Adults: 2024 Update